NCLEX-RN Daily Ten Question Practical Exercise 23

6. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?

Correct Answer: C

Answer Explanation:

An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator delivers an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. This is necessary in a patient with significant ventricular symptoms, such as tachycardia resulting in syncope. Indications are usually secondary where the patient has already suffered and survived cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation/ventricular tachycardia, or primary when the patient is at high risk of sudden cardiac death due to VF/ VT but has never had any such event.

Option A: A patient with myocardial infarction that resolved with no permanent cardiac damage would not be a candidate. ICD is a state of the art device that treats arrhythmias specifically those of ventricular origin like ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. It has become the first line of defense in patients who are at high risk for sudden cardiac death (SCD) and has shown consistent survival benefit in cardiac arrest survivors (SCA), in patients with Heart failure and severe systolic dysfunction (left ventricular ejection fraction-LVEF less than or equal to 35%) as well as in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
Option B: A patient recovering well from coronary bypass would not need the device. ICD is essentially a pacemaker with the ability to recognize abnormally fast cardiac rhythm and provide immediate treatment which can be in the form of overdrive pacing called anti-tachycardia Pacing (ATP) or shock therapy which could be synchronized or unsynchronized, depending on the recognized rhythm and the pre-programmed rhythm detection algorithm.
Option D: Atrial tachycardia is less serious and is treated conservatively with medication and cardioversion as a last resort. Secondary prophylaxis usually involves the event of cardiac arrest due to ventricular fibrillation (VF) or hemodynamically unstable, also known as pulseless, ventricular tachycardia (VT). Adequate workup and exclusion of reversible causes should be done first before deciding to put the device in, as is endorsed by the guidelines laid down by Heart Rhythm Society (HRS) and American College of Cardiology (ACC).

7. A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Answer Explanation:

The implanted pacemaker will interfere with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner and may be deactivated by them. The strong static magnetic field (B0) of MRI scanners can attract and accelerate ferromagnetic objects toward the center of the machine and turn them into dangerous projectiles. This magnetic field can also displace implants or affect the function of devices such as pacemakers and pumps.

Option A: Shellfish/iodine allergy is not a contraindication because the contrast used in MRI scanning is not iodine-based. MRI contrast agents are gadolinium chelates with different stability, viscosity, and osmolality. Gadolinium is a relatively very safe contrast; however, it rarely might cause allergic reactions in patients.
Option C: Open MRI scanners and anti-anxiety medications are available for patients with claustrophobia. Claustrophobic patients might refuse to complete the MRI scan and need sedation. These patients need to be well informed about the MRI scan procedure. The recommendation is that a physician has a discussion with them about the details in advance. Using Larger and opener MRI systems might be helpful in claustrophobic patients.
Option D: Psychiatric medication is not a contraindication to MRI scanning. Patients who are unable to be still or obey breathing instructions in the scanner need special attention. Some patients in pain might move during the procedure, which degrades the quality of the images, restrict the interpretation, and decrease the accuracy of the report. Some MRI sequences need to be obtained while patients hold their breath and lie motionless.

8. A nurse calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the nurse most likely observed?

Correct Answer: B

Answer Explanation:

Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately. Pulmonary embolism (PE) occurs when there is a disruption to the flow of blood in the pulmonary artery or its branches by a thrombus that originated somewhere else. Chest pain is a frequent symptom and is usually caused by pleural irritation due to distal emboli causing pulmonary infarction. In central PE, chest pain may be from underlying right ventricular (RV) ischemia and needs to be differentiated from an acute coronary syndrome or aortic dissection.

Option A: The most common symptoms of PE include the following: dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, cough, hemoptysis, presyncope, or syncope. Dyspnea may be acute and severe in central PE, whereas it is often mild and transient in small peripheral PE.
Option C: A patient with pulmonary embolism will not be sleepy or have a cough with crackles on exam. On examination, patients with PE might have tachypnea and tachycardia, which are common but nonspecific findings. Other examination findings include calf swelling, tenderness, erythema, palpable cords, pedal edema, rales, decreased breath sounds, signs of pulmonary hypertension such as elevated neck veins, loud P2 component of second heart sound, a right-sided gallop, and a right ventricular parasternal lift might be present on examination.
Option D: A patient with fever, chills, and loss of appetite may be developing pneumonia. A massive PE leads to an acute right ventricular failure, which presents as jugular venous distension, parasternal lift, third heart sound, cyanosis, and shock. If a patient with PE who has tachycardia on presentation develops sudden bradycardia or develops a new broad complex tachycardia (with right bundle branch block), providers should look for signs of right ventricular strain and possible impending shock. PE should be suspected in anyone who has hypotension with jugular venous distension wherein acute myocardial infarction, pericardial tamponade, or tension pneumothorax has been ruled out.

9. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: C

Answer Explanation:

A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture and should be resected as soon as possible. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a life-threatening condition which requires monitoring or treatment depending upon the size of the aneurysm and/or symptomatology. AAA may be detected incidentally or at the time of rupture. An arterial aneurysm is defined as a permanent localized dilatation of the vessel at least 150% compared to a relative normal adjacent diameter of that artery

Option A: The patient should be admitted but not in the medicine unit. Rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm is life-threatening. These patients may present in shock often with diffuse abdominal pain and distension. However, the presentation of patients with this type of ruptured aneurysm can vary from subtle to quite dramatic. Most patients with a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm die before hospital arrival.
Option B: The patient should undergo resection instead of sclerotherapy. Open surgical repair via transabdominal or retroperitoneal approach has been the gold standard. Endovascular repair from a femoral arterial approach is now applied for a majority of repairs, especially in older and higher risk patients. Endovascular therapy is recommended in patients who are not candidates for open surgery. This includes patients with severe heart disease, and/or other comorbidities that preclude open repair.
Option D: The patient should not be discharged because the aneurysm may rupture. A ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm warrants emergency repair. Endovascular approach for ruptured AAA has demonstrated superior results and survival compared to open repair if the anatomy is suitable, but the mortality rates remain high. The risk of surgery is influenced by the age of the patient, the presence of renal failure, and the status of the cardiopulmonary system.

10.

A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included on the nursing care plan?

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

A platelet count of 25,000/microliter is severely thrombocytopenic and should prompt the initiation of bleeding precautions, including monitoring urine and stool for evidence of bleeding. Review laboratory results for coagulation status as appropriate: platelet count, prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), fibrinogen, bleeding time, fibrin degradation products, vitamin K, activated coagulation time (ACT).

Option A: Educate the at-risk patient and caregivers about precautionary measures to prevent tissue trauma or disruption of the normal clotting mechanisms. Thoroughly conform the patient to surroundings; put call light within reach and teach how to call for assistance; respond to call light immediately.
Option B: Monitoring for fever and requiring protective clothing are indicated to prevent infection if white blood cells are decreased. Wash hands and teach patient and SO to wash hands before contact with patients and between procedures with the patient; encourage fluid intake of 2,000 to 3,000 mL of water per day, unless contraindicated.
Option C: Transfusion of red cells is indicated for severe anemia. Prehospital care focuses on the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation), which include providing oxygen, controlling severe hemorrhage, and initiating intravenous (IV) fluids to maintain hemodynamic stability; airway control may be necessary for a large intracranial hemorrhage.


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