2024 NCLEX Daily Ten Question Practical Exercise 1

1. The nurse is teaching a client with anemia who is newly prescribed ferrous sulfate.
Which of the following information should the nurse include?

A. “lt’s normal for this medication to make your stools black.”
B. “Drinking orange juice with this medication will reduce its absorption.”
C. “To prevent nausea, you can take this medication with calcium carbonate.”
D. “Increase absorption of this medication by taking it with your largest meal of the day.”

Correct Answer: A

Answer Explanation:

Ferrous iron salts (e.g., ferrous sulfate, ferrous fumarate) are iron supplements given to treat and prevent iron-deficiency anemia, which can result from blood loss, malnutrition, malabsorption, or pregnancy. Manifestations of iron deficiency anemia include fatigue, pallor, and inflammation of the tongue (glossitis) and lips (cheilitis).

Ferrous sulfate teaching includes:
Take on an empty stomach and/or with orange juice to maximize absorption.
Avoid taking with calcium or with a large meal.
Common side effects include gastrointestinal upset and black stools.

2. The nurse is performing discharge teaching for a hospitalized client who is scheduled for discharge. The client states, “I do not have money to get these prescriptions.”
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Discuss alternative, more affordable medication options with the client.
B. Contact the client’s family members to see if they can assist financially.
C. Contact a social worker to discuss possible resources available for the client.
D. Provide the client with a list of outpatient resources and continue the discharge process

Correct Answer: C

Answer Explanation:

Social workers and case managers assist with discharge planning and accessing needed resources for clients (e.g., prescription discounts, affordable housing, medical equipment). They have specialized knowledge and training on community programs and resources designed to assist clients. A social worker or case manager should be contacted to help identify available resources and connect the client to appropriate resources based on the client’s individual needs (e.g., financial support, transportation).

3. The nurse is teaching the client with a broken ankle how to ambulate with crutches.
Which of the following information should the nurse include?

A. “Fully extend your elbows when you hold the crutches.”
B. “Put your weight on your underarms instead of your hands.”
C. “Adjust the crutches so your underarms rest on the padded tops of the crutches.”
D. “When ambulating, extend the crutches and injured leg forward together, followed by the uninjured leg.”

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

Assistive devices (e.g., canes, walkers, crutches) are important for safe ambulation and are used to assist clients who cannot bear full weight on one or both legs or have problems with balance. Crutches should be positioned 2-3 fingerbreadths below the axilla with elbows flexed 15-30 degrees. The client’s body weight is supported by the arms and hands. As a non-weight-bearing client ambulates, a three-point gait is appropriate and involves extending both crutches and the injured leg together, followed by the unaffected leg.

4. The nurse in the emergency department is caring for a 2-year-old client who is febrile and newly admitted with suspected croup. The nurse observes that the client is speaking with a muffled voice.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Take an oral temperature.
B. Administer dextromethorphan.
C. Notify the health care provider.
D. Collect a respiratory throat culture.

Correct Answer: C

Answer Explanation:

Epiglottitis is a croup syndrome, often caused by H. influenzae, that results in severe inflammation of the epiglottis (i.e., upper larynx). While croup is characterized by a seal-bark cough, epiglottitis is distinguished by the absence of cough. Other findings of epiglottitis include fever, drooling, agitation, muffled voice, and a swollen, red throat.  If untreated, upper airway swelling in epiglottitis can quickly progress to airway obstruction and respiratory failure. Therefore, the nurse should assess the client’s respiratory status, contact the health care provider immediately, and prepare for possible endotracheal intubation. Stimulating the gag reflex can cause the throat to close and obstruct the airway. Therefore, the nurse should avoid inspecting the throat except immediately before an emergency intubation or tracheostomy.

5. The nurse is screening clients for those at risk for hypoglycemia.
At highest risk for hypoglycemia is the client who

A. has type 2 diabetes and takes metformin
B. has rheumatoid arthritis and takes prednisone
C. has type 1 diabetes and takes scheduled insulin
D. has pancreatitis, is NPO, and is receiving lV fluids

Correct Answer: C

Answer Explanation:

Hypoglycemia occurs when the blood glucose drops below the normal range, which can cause cell and tissue death. The primary cause of hypoglycemia is excessive use of supplemental insulin. Clients taking insulin are at high risk for hypoglycemia, especially if they overdose on their insulin, skip meals, or engage in unexpected physical activity. Scheduled insulin is given at set times, which can lead to hypoglycemia if clients don’t time meals properly or change their routine.

6. The telemetry nurse is monitoring the following clients’ telemetry waveforms at the nurses’ station.
Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: B

Answer Explanation:

Choice B: The patient’s ECG shows an atrial regular rhythm with a ventricular rate of 20-60 beats/min. Both atrial and ventricular rhythms are regular but may appear irregular. P waves are present but not consistently connected to QRS complexes, with some hidden in them. The PR interval is inconsistent and varies randomly, and the QRS complex is normal or widened with no connection to P waves. Pulse activity is present, and the summary indicates consistent P-P and R-R intervals with no connection between P waves and QRS complexes.

This ECG pattern is indicative of third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, also known as complete heart block, a potentially lethal rhythm in which electrical impulses from the sinoatrial (SA) node are blocked from reaching the ventricles, leading to asynchronous atrial and ventricular contractions. Complete heart block can cause life-threatening bradycardia, resulting in decreased cardiac output, severe hypotension, and hypoperfusion. With a pulse rate of 40/min, the patient is severely bradycardic, necessitating immediate notification of the healthcare provider and preparation for transcutaneous pacing with the availability of a defibrillator.

7. The nurse is planning care for a client who is ambulatory and has incontinence-associated dermatitis (IAD) affecting the groin and perineum.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A. Apply topical corticosteroids to areas for relief of itching
B. Use antibacterial soap and hot water to clean the perineum.
C. Place warm, damp compresses on the groin and perineum.
D. Apply barrier cream to affected areas after incontinence care.

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

Incontinence-associated dermatitis (IAD) is moisture-related tissue injury from prolonged contact with urine or feces. Moisture causes skin maceration (softened tissue), and digestive enzymes in stool and urea in urine contribute to excoriation (loss of top skin layer), rash, and inflammation. Additionally, incontinence briefs (i.e., diapers) trap heat and sweat that can cause IAD. Identifying clients at risk for skin breakdown and initiating incontinence management decreases the risk for IAD. Cleaning with alcohol-free skin foam or wipes and applying skin barrier cream or ointment after incontinence care protect against IAD and skin infection. Barrier cream provides an occlusive barrier to prevent moisture from urine or feces from damaging the skin.

8. The nurse is observing a new nurse caring for a 7-year-old client with varicella zoster.
Which of the following actions by the new nurse would require follow-up by the supervising nurse?

A. Prepares to administer aspirin as needed to treat the child’s fever
B. Teaches the child to apply pressure to the skin instead of scratching
C. Provides daily baths followed by application of topical calamine lotion
D. Places the child on standard, airborne, and contact isolation precautions

Correct Answer: A

Answer Explanation:

Varicella (i.e., chickenpox) is a highly contagious viral infection characterized by an intensely pruritic rash that transforms from papules to vesicles and then crusts. When lesions are scratched, they can become infected with secondary bacterial skin infections (e.g., cellulitis). Care for the client with varicella involves isolation precautions, skin care, and fever management.  Acetaminophen or ibuprofen can be used to manage fever in children. Aspirin should never be given to a child with a viral illness because it can cause a serious condition called Reye syndrome.

9. The nurse is caring for a 2-day-old infant with a suspected congenital heart defect.
Which of the following findings should receive highest priority?

A. Grade l systolic murmur
B. Weight loss of 5% since birth
C. Periodic apnea lasting 8 seconds
D. 1+ femoral pulses, 3+ brachial pulses

Correct Answer: D

Answer Explanation:

Coarctation of the aorta (COA) is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowed aorta. This narrowing causes higher blood pressure and bounding pulses in the upper extremities proximal to the aorta. Lower blood pressure and weak or absent pulses are often present in the lower extremities distal to the aorta. The nurse should assess a newborn with COA for heart failure symptoms (e.g., cyanosis). Interventions include respiratory support (e.g., mechanical ventilation) and inotropes (e.g., dopamine) to improve cardiac output.

10. The charge nurse is conducting a fall-risk assessment on admitted clients.
At highest risk for falls is the client who

A. takes bumetanide for pulmonary edema
B. takes rivaroxaban for a pulmonary embolism
C. wears hearing aids for age-related hearing loss
D. has a saline-locked venous access device (VAD) in place

Correct Answer: A

Answer Explanation:

Factors that place clients at risk for falls include impairments in mobility, balance, mental status, sensory perception, and elimination. Clients taking diuretics (e.g., bumetanide, furosemide) are at high risk for falls due to both orthostatic hypotension (dizziness on standing) and urinary frequency and urgency. For this client, the nurse should ensure the pathway to the restroom is clear or provide a bedside commode for easy access. To prevent orthostatic hypotension, the client should rise slowly and dangle at the bedside before standing.


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